When it has already been explained at the outset as 'a trap', why, in the story of 'the woman taken in adultery' in John 8 do readers assume that she had indeed committed this offence at all? We only have the word of the tricksters. Is it not far more likely that she forms an integral part of that trap? Was that not her sin, here?
The story has little to do with adultery in any case. It is a test of whether or not Jesus would embrace a Jewish law or bow to Roman authority.
I do not think there is any story in the entire Bible which is quite as badly taught as this one.
